1. In the context of modern wireless communication standards, what is the primary differentiator that allows 5G New Radio (NR) to achieve significantly lower latency compared to 4G LTE?
A. The exclusive use of millimeter-wave (mmWave) frequency bands.
B. The introduction of the gNB (Next Generation NodeB) architecture and flexible numerology.
C. Mandatory implementation of Massive MIMO in all deployments.
D. The complete removal of the Evolved Packet Core (EPC).
2. Which modulation scheme is typically chosen for high-throughput data transmission in the downlink of a 5G NR system when the channel quality is excellent, due to its spectral efficiency?
A. QPSK (Quadrature Phase Shift Keying)
B. 16-QAM (Quadrature Amplitude Modulation)
C. 256-QAM (Quadrature Amplitude Modulation)
D. BPSK (Binary Phase Shift Keying)
3. What fundamental concept does the Shannon-Hartley theorem define in telecommunications?
A. The minimum power required to achieve a specific data rate in an AWGN channel.
B. The theoretical maximum data rate (channel capacity) achievable over a communication channel with a given bandwidth and signal-to-noise ratio (SNR).
C. The optimal coding scheme required to eliminate channel fading effects.
D. The maximum distance a signal can travel before dispersion causes inter-symbol interference.
4. In fiber optic communication, what phenomenon causes the pulses of light to spread out over distance, limiting the achievable bit rate?
A. Attenuation
B. Chromatic Dispersion
C. Nonlinear Effects
D. Rayleigh Scattering
5. Which network function virtualization (NFV) component is responsible for managing and orchestrating the lifecycle of Virtual Network Functions (VNFs)?
A. Virtual Infrastructure Manager (VIM)
B. Virtualized Network Function (VNF)
C. Management and Orchestration (MANO)
D. Network Functions Virtualization Infrastructure (NFVI)
6. What is the primary role of the Control Plane in the Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?
A. Forwarding data packets based on the rules installed by the Control Plane.
B. Decoupling the forwarding logic from the control logic and centralizing network intelligence.
C. Managing the physical hardware components like switches and routers.
D. Handling the physical transmission and reception of signals.
7. When designing a cellular network, why is Frequency Reuse a necessary technique in the context of interference management?
A. To increase the total system bandwidth available to users in a given geographical area.
B. To allow non-adjacent cells to reuse the same set of frequencies, thereby increasing spectral efficiency, despite introducing co-channel interference.
C. To ensure that the signal strength in the center of a cell is significantly higher than at the cell edge.
D. To divide the available spectrum into smaller channels to reduce adjacent channel interference.
8. In the context of IP networking, what mechanism is primarily used in IPv6 to allow for the automatic configuration of network settings, including IP addresses, without requiring a centralized DHCP server?
A. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
B. DHCPv6 Stateful configuration
C. SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration)
D. ICMPv4 Redirect
9. What differentiates a core network operating in a Non-Standalone (NSA) 5G deployment mode compared to a Standalone (SA) 5G deployment mode?
A. NSA uses the 5G Core (5GC) while SA uses the Evolved Packet Core (EPC).
B. NSA relies on the 4G Evolved Packet Core (EPC) for control plane functions, whereas SA uses the 5G Core (5GC).
C. NSA only supports eMBB services, while SA supports URLLC and mMTC.
D. SA requires the 5G base station (gNB) to handle all control and user plane traffic.
10. Which principle is the foundation for techniques like OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing) used in modern wireless standards (4G/5G)?
A. Spread Spectrum techniques to combat narrowband interference.
B. Orthogonality between subcarriers to minimize Inter-Symbol Interference (ISI) without guard bands.
C. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) for improved anti-jamming capabilities.
D. Using a single, very wide carrier frequency for maximum spectral efficiency.
11. When analyzing the spectral efficiency of a wireless link, what is the primary impact of increasing the number of bits per symbol using higher-order modulation (e.g., moving from 16-QAM to 64-QAM)?
A. It increases robustness against frequency fading.
B. It decreases the required transmission power.
C. It increases the required Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) to maintain the same Bit Error Rate (BER).
D. It simplifies the required channel coding scheme.
12. In the context of security, what is the primary purpose of the Transport Layer Security (TLS) handshake process?
A. To establish the initial TCP connection parameters between client and server.
B. To authenticate both client and server and negotiate the cryptographic algorithms and session keys to be used.
C. To securely transfer the initial HTTP request payload.
D. To manage the Quality of Service (QoS) prioritization for the data flow.
13. Which metric is most appropriate for measuring the effectiveness of channel coding in improving system performance against random noise?
A. Spectral Efficiency (bits/s/Hz)
B. Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR)
C. Error Probability Reduction (Gain relative to uncoded transmission at a given BER)
D. Peak Data Rate (Mbps)
14. What key technology enables Massive MIMO systems to improve spectral efficiency and link reliability by focusing energy towards specific users?
A. OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access)
B. Beamforming
C. HARQ (Hybrid Automatic Repeat Request)
D. Time Division Duplexing (TDD)
15. In a modern communication network, what is the role of the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) at the Network Layer (Layer 3)?
A. To encapsulate the Segment and add port numbers for transport.
B. To handle framing and error detection for the physical transmission.
C. To encapsulate data with source and destination IP addresses for logical routing across networks.
D. To manage flow control and reliable data transfer between end-points.
16. Which architectural shift characterizes the move from traditional circuit-switched networks to modern packet-switched core networks?
A. Allocation of dedicated resources for the entire duration of a call.
B. Statistical multiplexing and dynamic resource sharing for data transmission.
C. Use of synchronous time-division multiplexing for bearer establishment.
D. Reliance on SS7 signaling for call setup and teardown.
17. What key challenge does a high Elevation Angle requirement pose for terrestrial cellular network deployment, especially in dense urban areas?
A. Increased risk of interference from satellite communications.
B. Difficulty in achieving necessary power levels for long-haul transmission.
C. The need for highly directional antennas pointing towards the ground, which complicates interference management.
D. The inability to use Beamforming effectively without a clear Line-of-Sight (LoS) path to the user equipment.
18. In the context of Quality of Service (QoS) differentiation in IP networks, what is the primary purpose of the Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) field in the IP header?
A. To identify the source IP address for security auditing.
B. To specify the exact path the packet must take through the network.
C. To classify traffic behavior and map it to specific per-hop behaviors (PHBs) like expedited forwarding or assured forwarding.
D. To manage the congestion window size in TCP flows.
19. What architectural element is central to enabling network slicing in 5G networks?
A. Massive MIMO antenna arrays deployed at the cell site.
B. The transition to cloud-native, service-based architecture (SBA) in the 5G Core (5GC).
C. The use of millimeter-wave spectrum for enhanced capacity.
D. Full adoption of Time Division Duplexing (TDD) for spectrum allocation.
20. Why is the selection of the shortest symbol duration (smallest subcarrier spacing) in 5G NR advantageous for supporting Ultra-Reliable Low-Latency Communication (URLLC) services?
A. It allows for better spectral efficiency.
B. It reduces the overall time required for channel estimation.
C. It minimizes the impact of phase noise and Doppler shift.
D. It shortens the symbol duration, directly reducing latency.
21. What is the key difference between Forward Error Correction (FEC) and Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) mechanisms in error control?
A. FEC is used only in satellite links, while ARQ is used in terrestrial links.
B. FEC adds redundancy to detect and correct errors at the receiver, whereas ARQ requests retransmission of corrupted data segments.
C. ARQ is used for physical layer errors, and FEC is used for logical layer errors.
D. FEC is a closed-loop control mechanism, while ARQ is open-loop.
22. When considering the trade-off between spectral efficiency and robustness in wireless communications, which scenario typically favors the use of a lower-order modulation scheme (e.g., QPSK)?
A. When the available bandwidth is extremely limited.
B. When the required Bit Error Rate (BER) tolerance is very high (very robust link required).
C. When the channel SNR is consistently above 25 dB.
D. When serving a massive number of low-throughput devices simultaneously.
23. What role does the C-Plane (Control Plane) play in the architecture of the 5G Core (5GC) network?
A. Handling the actual user data traffic forwarding between the RAN and the external data networks.
B. Managing session establishment, mobility management, and authentication functions.
C. Providing the underlying cloud infrastructure (VIM) for hosting network functions.
D. Executing radio link control and physical layer procedures at the base station.
24. In wired communication, what is the primary purpose of using equalization techniques at the receiver?
A. To increase the signal power to overcome attenuation.
B. To correct signal distortions, such as Inter-Symbol Interference (ISI), caused by channel frequency response.
C. To compress the data stream before decoding.
D. To encrypt the received data payload securely.
25. What is the defining characteristic that distinguishes the Internet Protocol (IP) from the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) in the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. TCP operates at Layer 3, while IP operates at Layer 4.
B. IP is connection-oriented, while TCP is connectionless.
C. IP provides best-effort, connectionless delivery, whereas TCP provides reliable, connection-oriented service.
D. TCP handles logical addressing, while IP manages physical addressing.
26. Why is beam sweeping an essential initial step when deploying and utilizing extremely high frequencies like those in the millimeter-wave (mmWave) band for 5G?
A. To scan for available frequency channels to avoid microwave interference.
B. To quickly establish an initial low-latency connection without using higher overhead signaling.
C. To locate the best Line-of-Sight (LoS) path or strong reflection path between the base station and the User Equipment (UE).
D. To determine the optimal number of antenna elements required for Massive MIMO operation.
27. What is the primary benefit of implementing Mobile Edge Computing (MEC) for latency-sensitive applications like augmented reality in a telecommunications network?
A. It increases the overall available spectrum capacity for mobile users.
B. It reduces the backhaul transport costs by minimizing data transfer to the central cloud.
C. It processes data closer to the user, significantly reducing end-to-end latency by avoiding core network hops.
D. It enhances the physical security of the core network infrastructure.
28. In passive optical networks (PONs), what mechanism is used by the Optical Line Terminal (OLT) to manage contention and ensure fair bandwidth access among multiple Optical Network Units (ONUs) sharing the same fiber?
A. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) scheduling grants.
B. Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) assignments.
C. Frequency Division Duplexing (FDD).
D. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA).
29. When migrating from 4G LTE to 5G, the enhanced mobility management typically relies on which architecture element to handle handover decisions across different access technologies (e.g., LTE and 5G)?
A. The MME (Mobility Management Entity) in the EPC.
B. The AMF (Access and Mobility Management Function) in the 5G Core.
C. The Serving Gateway (S-GW) in the EPC.
D. The UPF (User Plane Function) in the 5G Core.
30. What is the fundamental trade-off that engineers must balance when selecting the frequency band for a new wireless deployment (e.g., Sub-6 GHz vs. mmWave)?
A. Latency versus Power Consumption.
B. Coverage Range versus Spectral Capacity.
C. Security Overhead versus Handover Success Rate.
D. Hardware Complexity versus Regulatory Compliance.
31. In the context of 5G New Radio (NR), what is the primary function of the Cyclic Prefix (CP) in Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) transmission?
A. To increase the spectral efficiency of the transmission.
B. To mitigate inter-symbol interference (ISI) and inter-carrier interference (ICI) caused by multipath propagation.
C. To enhance the peak-to-average power ratio (PAPR) for better battery life.
D. To facilitate beamforming operations by adjusting phase shifts.
32. Which modulation scheme is typically used in the initial random access procedure (RACH) of 5G NR due to its robustness against frequency offset and Doppler spread?
A. Higher-order Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM).
B. Phase Shift Keying (PSK).
C. Uplink-Cyclic Prefix Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (U-CP-OFDM).
D. Uplink-demodulation reference signal (UL-DMRS).
33. In modern optical fiber communication systems, what is the main limitation that causes signal degradation over long distances, necessitating techniques like dispersion compensation?
A. Attenuation due to Rayleigh scattering.
B. Nonlinear effects like four-wave mixing (FWM).
C. Chromatic dispersion.
D. Polarization Mode Dispersion (PMD) only.
34. What distinguishes Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture from traditional network architecture, particularly concerning control and data planes?
A. SDN centralizes the control plane while decoupling it from the data plane.
B. SDN distributes the control plane across all network devices for redundancy.
C. SDN eliminates the need for the data plane entirely by using cloud-based forwarding.
D. SDN integrates the control plane and data plane tightly within each physical device.
35. Which service characteristic is critical for mission-critical applications like remote surgery or autonomous driving, requiring extremely low latency and high reliability?
A. Enhanced Mobile Broadband (eMBB).
B. Massive Machine Type Communications (mMTC).
C. Ultra-Reliable Low Latency Communications (URLLC).
D. Fixed Wireless Access (FWA).
36. In the context of Voice over IP (VoIP) quality, what does the term ‘Jitter’ primarily measure?
A. The time delay experienced by voice packets from source to destination.
B. The loss rate of voice packets during transmission.
C. The variation in delay experienced by successive voice packets.
D. The total corruption or bit errors in the received stream.
37. Which technology is primarily used in 4G LTE systems to support high data rates by utilizing multiple antennas at both the transmitter and receiver?
A. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing).
B. MIMO (Multiple-Input Multiple-Output).
C. TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access).
D. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection).
38. What is the primary benefit of implementing Network Function Virtualization (NFV) in modern telecommunication networks?
A. Increasing the maximum speed of data transfer across the network.
B. Decoupling network functions (like firewalls or load balancers) from proprietary hardware onto commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) servers.
C. Eliminating the need for physical routing tables in core routers.
D. Mandating the use of specific hardware appliances for security functions.
39. When migrating from 4G LTE to 5G NR, the utilization of the new frequency spectrum, particularly above 6 GHz, primarily introduces which major challenge for network deployment?
A. Increased signaling overhead due to simpler protocol stack.
B. Significantly shorter propagation distance and higher path loss.
C. Lower capacity due to narrower available channel bandwidths.
D. Reduced interference levels compared to sub-6 GHz bands.
40. In cybersecurity related to telecommunications, what does a Denial of Service (DoS) attack targeting the signaling plane primarily aim to achieve?
A. Stealing user data traversing the user plane.
B. Overloading the core network control elements to prevent connection setup or maintenance.
C. Disrupting the physical layer modulation schemes.
D. Forcing the radio access network to downgrade to 2G standards.
41. What is the fundamental difference between Symmetric Key Cryptography and Asymmetric Key Cryptography used in securing communication protocols?
A. Symmetric keys are used only for encryption, while asymmetric keys are used only for hashing.
B. Symmetric cryptography uses the same key for encryption and decryption, whereas asymmetric cryptography uses a pair of related but different keys.
C. Asymmetric keys require a higher computational overhead but offer faster data throughput.
D. Symmetric cryptography is primarily used for integrity checking, while asymmetric cryptography handles confidentiality.
42. Which protocol is commonly used as the primary bearer for delivering IP packets over the Radio Access Network (RAN) in 4G/5G systems, tunneling higher layer protocols?
A. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service).
B. SCTP (Stream Control Transmission Protocol).
C. GTP-U (GPRS Tunneling Protocol – User Plane).
D. Diameter.
43. In optical networking, what technique is employed to transmit multiple data streams over a single fiber by using different wavelengths (colors) of light?
A. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM).
B. Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM).
C. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM).
D. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA).
44. What key capability does the network slicing feature in 5G enable mobile operators to offer?
A. Guaranteeing backward compatibility with 3G networks.
B. Creating multiple independent, customized virtual networks on shared physical infrastructure.
C. Reducing the overall power consumption of the core network.
D. Migrating all network functions to the cloud without any local hardware.
45. Which parameter in a cellular system directly impacts the frequency reuse factor and the overall capacity of a given geographical area?
A. The modulation scheme order (e.g., 64-QAM vs 16-QAM).
B. The cell sectorization angle.
C. The frequency reuse factor (N).
D. The path loss exponent.
46. In the context of Massive MIMO, what is the primary benefit derived from using a large number of antenna elements at the base station?
A. It inherently eliminates the need for frequency reuse.
B. It allows for highly focused energy transmission (beamforming) towards individual users, improving SNR and spatial multiplexing.
C. It simplifies the signaling protocol between the base station and the core network.
D. It completely removes the requirement for guard bands between channels.
47. What is the main purpose of using a Duplex Gap in Frequency Division Duplex (FDD) systems?
A. To allow the base station to measure the downlink signal quality for uplink power control.
B. To provide a frequency separation between the uplink and downlink channels to prevent self-interference at the transceiver.
C. To act as a guard band between different frequency carriers within the same channel.
D. To facilitate seamless handover between neighboring cells operating on the same frequency.
48. In 5G architecture, which component is responsible for terminating the Non-Access Stratum (NAS) signaling from the User Equipment (UE) and handling mobility management functions?
A. Session Management Function (SMF).
B. Access and Mobility Management Function (AMF).
C. User Plane Function (UPF).
D. Radio Access Network Function (RANF).
49. Which physical layer concept, central to OFDM, ensures that the subcarriers are orthogonal to each other, preventing signal overlap despite being closely packed in the frequency domain?
A. The utilization of a large Cyclic Prefix.
B. The selection of symbol duration such that the subcarrier spacing is the inverse of the symbol duration.
C. The application of adaptive modulation and coding (AMC).
D. The use of Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) for signal processing.
50. When evaluating the performance of a data network link, what does Packet Error Rate (PER) represent in relation to the physical and link layers?
A. The probability that a transmitted bit is received incorrectly.
B. The proportion of entire packets that arrive with one or more corrupted bits, even if they were delivered.
C. The ratio of the actual throughput to the theoretical maximum throughput.
D. The amount of bandwidth consumed by protocol overhead.
51. In the context of cloud computing infrastructure for telecom networks, what is the primary architectural advantage of using containers (like Docker/Kubernetes) over traditional Virtual Machines (VMs) for deploying VNFs?
A. Containers require a full guest operating system, increasing isolation.
B. Containers offer much faster startup times and lower resource overhead because they share the host OS kernel.
C. VMs are inherently incompatible with 5G core network functions.
D. Containers provide superior security isolation compared to VMs.
52. What challenge is primarily addressed by implementing Carrier Aggregation (CA) in LTE-Advanced and 5G systems?
A. Improving spectral efficiency by reducing overhead.
B. Increasing the maximum achievable data rate by combining multiple frequency carriers.
C. Ensuring guaranteed Quality of Service (QoS) for low-priority traffic.
D. Mitigating frequency-selective fading across the entire bandwidth.
53. If a mobile network experiences high latency primarily in the Core Network, which function is the most likely bottleneck point needing investigation in a 5G architecture?
A. gNB (Next Generation Node B).
B. User Equipment (UE).
C. User Plane Function (UPF) placement or configuration.
D. Authentication Server Function (AUSF).
54. In the context of modern IP networking, what is the main role of a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) speaker in large-scale telecommunication backbones?
A. To manage intra-area routing using link-state information.
B. To exchange routing and reachability information between different Autonomous Systems (ASes) on the global internet.
C. To provide quality of service guarantees using traffic engineering tags.
D. To assign public IP addresses dynamically to user devices within a local network.
55. Which characteristic is the most distinguishing factor that differentiates a Massive IoT (mMTC) connection profile from an Enhanced Mobile Broadband (eMBB) connection profile in 5G standards?
A. mMTC requires much higher peak data rates than eMBB.
B. eMBB prioritizes extreme low latency, while mMTC prioritizes massive connection density and energy efficiency.
C. mMTC focuses on supporting a very large number of devices with low throughput and long battery life.
D. eMBB relies exclusively on millimeter-wave spectrum, unlike mMTC.
56. What is the purpose of the Channel Quality Indicator (CQI) feedback sent by the User Equipment (UE) to the base station in a dynamic wireless system?
A. To request a handover to a neighboring cell.
B. To inform the base station about the instantaneous downlink channel conditions to allow for optimal link adaptation.
C. To signal the UE’s remaining battery life.
D. To request retransmission of the previous data packet.
57. When analyzing the overhead in a modern cellular system, what is the primary reason why control signaling consumes a significant portion of the available resources?
A. Control signaling is intentionally modulated using lower-order modulation (e.g., QPSK) for robustness.
B. The control plane handles all data encryption, which is computationally expensive.
C. Control information, such as scheduling requests and channel state reports, must be sent very frequently and reliably.
D. Control signaling always occupies the lowest frequency bands, which are less efficient.
58. Which technique in wireless communication is essential for combating inter-symbol interference (ISI) in high-speed data transmission across frequency-selective fading channels, as used in 4G and 5G?
A. Spread Spectrum Techniques.
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing).
C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS).
D. Power Control.
59. In the evolution towards 5G, the concept of ‘Control and User Plane Separation’ (CUPS) primarily affects which layer of the network architecture?
A. The physical layer (Layer 1).
B. The radio interface between the UE and gNB.
C. The core network architecture (e.g., EPC/5GC).
D. The management and orchestration layer.
60. What security mechanism is fundamental in the initial connection setup of a 5G connection to establish a secure, authenticated tunnel between the UE and the network?
A. IPsec encapsulation at Layer 3.
B. The 5G Authentication and Key Agreement (5G-AKA) protocol.
C. MAC address filtering on the gNB.
D. TCP three-way handshake.
61. In the context of modern mobile telecommunications, which generation introduced the concept of a flat network architecture and all-IP packet-switched core, moving away from the layered structures of 3G?
A. 4G LTE
B. 5G NR
C. 3G UMTS
D. 2G GSM
62. What is the primary function of the Access and Mobility Management Function (AMF) in the 5G Core (5GC) network architecture?
A. Managing session establishment and termination for user data traffic.
B. Handling authentication, security anchor functionality, and registration management.
C. Providing policy control and charging rules to the access network.
D. Managing the transport network slicing selection function.
63. When comparing OFDM and OFDMA modulation schemes used in wireless communication, what is the crucial difference that allows OFDMA to support multiple users simultaneously on the same frequency band?
A. OFDMA uses only subcarriers for a single user, while OFDM uses multiple subcarriers for multiple users.
B. OFDMA assigns different orthogonal subcarriers to different users concurrently, whereas OFDM uses all subcarriers for one user at a time.
C. OFDMA relies on a higher modulation order than OFDM for better spectral efficiency.
D. OFDMA eliminates guard intervals entirely, unlike OFDM.
64. In the OSI model, which layer is primarily responsible for routing data packets between different networks (inter-network communication) based on IP addresses?
A. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
B. Network Layer (Layer 3)
C. Transport Layer (Layer 4)
D. Application Layer (Layer 7)
65. Which technology standardizes the management of network resources by controlling the underlying physical network infrastructure, often associated with NFV and SDN?
A. OSS (Operation Support Systems)
B. SDN (Software-Defined Networking)
C. BSS (Business Support Systems)
D. IMS (IP Multimedia Subsystem)
66. communication system utilizes a channel coding technique where the encoded output bits depend not only on the current input bits but also on a history of previous input bits, characterized by a defined memory constraint. What is this class of codes known as?
A. Block Codes
B. Convolutional Codes
C. Spread Spectrum Codes
D. Cyclic Codes
67. In the context of microwave communication links, what phenomenon necessitates the calculation of Fresnel Zone clearance to ensure reliable signal propagation?
A. Multipath fading caused by reflected signals interfering with the direct path.
B. Atmospheric refraction causing the beam to bend towards the Earth.
C. Diffraction over obstacles in the line-of-sight path.
D. Chromatic dispersion in the waveguide components.
68. Which mechanism in LTE/5G is designed to mitigate the near-far problem in the uplink by allowing multiple users to transmit simultaneously over the same time/frequency resources, provided their signals are coded uniquely?
A. Frequency Division Duplexing (FDD)
B. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
C. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA)
69. What is the primary purpose of implementing Network Function Virtualization (NFV) in modern telecommunications networks?
A. To replace all optical fiber infrastructure with wireless links.
B. To decouple network functions from proprietary hardware appliances and run them as software on commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) servers.
C. To increase the maximum spectral efficiency by reducing bandwidth usage.
D. To mandate the use of microwave backhaul instead of fiber backhaul.
70. Which metric quantifies the efficiency of utilizing the available allocated spectrum, typically measured in bits per second per Hertz (bps/Hz)?
A. Throughput
B. Spectral Efficiency
C. Latency
D. QoS (Quality of Service)
71. In optical fiber communications, what causes signal degradation due to different frequency components of the light pulse traveling at slightly different speeds along the fiber, leading to pulse broadening?
A. Attenuation
B. Chromatic Dispersion
C. Rayleigh Scattering
D. Nonlinear Effects (e.g., Four-Wave Mixing)
72. When analyzing the throughput of a cellular system, what term describes the percentage of time slots or subcarriers that are successfully utilized for user data transmission, excluding signaling and overhead?
A. Availability Factor
B. Capacity Utilization Rate
C. Channel Utilization
D. Link Budget Margin
73. Which protocol is essential in the modern core network for establishing and managing multimedia sessions, commonly used for VoIP and video calls over IP networks?
A. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
B. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)
C. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
74. In the context of wireless channel modeling, what is the primary effect captured by the Shadowing component (large-scale fading)?
A. The rapid variation in received signal strength due to reflections over short distances (e.g., within 10 meters).
B. The attenuation caused by obstacles and path loss over longer distances between the transmitter and receiver.
C. The slow variation in received signal strength caused by blockage from large structures like buildings or terrain.
D. The interference caused by adjacent channel leakage.
75. What is the fundamental advantage of using MIMO (Multiple-Input Multiple-Output) technology in 4G/5G systems over SISO systems?
A. MIMO exclusively uses higher frequency bands to increase bandwidth.
B. MIMO can significantly increase throughput or link reliability by exploiting spatial diversity and spatial multiplexing.
C. MIMO eliminates the need for beamforming and beam tracking.
D. MIMO reduces the required transmission power significantly without affecting range.
76. Which metric is most relevant for assessing the user experience related to real-time interactive applications, such as video conferencing, where delay variation is critical?
A. Jitter
B. Packet Loss Rate
C. Throughput
D. Bit Error Rate (BER)
77. In the context of cellular capacity planning, what term refers to the maximum theoretical rate at which data can be reliably transferred over a specific wireless link, dictated by Shannon’s capacity formula?
A. Bandwidth
B. Channel Capacity
C. Data Rate
D. Spectral Efficiency
78. What key advantage does Time Division Duplexing (TDD) offer over Frequency Division Duplexing (FDD) in dynamic wireless networks?
A. TDD eliminates interference between adjacent cells more effectively.
B. TDD allows for flexible and asymmetric allocation of uplink/downlink resources based on real-time traffic demand.
C. TDD requires a wider frequency guard band to separate uplink and downlink transmissions.
D. TDD does not require precise time synchronization between base stations.
79. When implementing a modern communication system utilizing Massive MIMO, what is the primary benefit derived from using a large number of antennas at the base station?
A. Increasing the required transmit power to cover a larger area.
B. Achieving higher spectral efficiency through spatial multiplexing and improved beamforming gain.
C. Reducing the reliance on channel coding techniques.
D. Enabling communication solely in the sub-6 GHz band.
80. What is the primary role of the Policy Control Function (PCF) within the 5G Core network?
A. To manage user equipment authentication credentials.
B. To provide policy rules for Quality of Service (QoS) and session management decisions.
C. To handle the physical routing of user data packets.
D. To manage the allocation and release of radio resources.
81. If a technician observes that the received signal strength indicator (RSSI) remains high, but the data throughput drops drastically, what phenomenon is the most likely cause?
A. Signal blockage by a large object (Path Loss).
B. Inter-Symbol Interference (ISI).
C. Co-channel Interference or Adjacent Channel Interference (ACI).
D. Low antenna gain.
82. Which concept in digital modulation schemes relates to the choice of constellation points based on the desired trade-off between spectral efficiency and robustness against noise?
A. Spread Factor
B. Modulation Order (e.g., QPSK, 16-QAM, 64-QAM)
C. Coding Rate
D. Guard Interval Length
83. In Software Defined Networking (SDN), what is the role of the OpenFlow protocol?
A. To manage the user authentication process for subscribers.
B. To define the interface between the control plane (Controller) and the forwarding plane (Switches/Routers).
C. To manage the Virtual Network Function (VNF) lifecycle.
D. To handle IP address assignment dynamically.
84. What characteristic distinguishes a ‘time-slicing’ scheduling algorithm (like Round Robin) from a ‘proportional fair’ scheduling algorithm in wireless resource allocation?
A. Time-slicing prioritizes throughput for the users with the best channel conditions.
B. Time-slicing treats all users equally regardless of channel quality, while proportional fair balances throughput maximization with fairness.
C. Proportional fair scheduling only works in downlink transmission.
D. Time-slicing relies on the Shannon formula for allocation decisions.
85. When implementing high-speed digital transmission, what is the primary purpose of using a raised cosine filtering pulse shape at the transmitter?
A. To increase the transmission power significantly.
B. To minimize Inter-Symbol Interference (ISI) by controlling the rolloff factor.
C. To maximize the occupied spectral bandwidth.
D. To implement spread spectrum coding.
86. In satellite communication, what is the term for the angular separation between a satellite and two distinct ground stations, which can lead to interference if not properly managed?
A. Elevation Angle
B. Azimuth Angle
C. Look Angle
D. Angular Separation / Interference Angle
87. What is the key architectural component introduced in 4G LTE that is responsible for connecting the Evolved Packet Core (EPC) to the Radio Access Network (eNodeB) and managing handover between eNodeBs?
A. Serving Gateway (S-GW)
B. Mobility Management Entity (MME)
C. Packet Data Network Gateway (P-GW)
D. Radio Network Controller (RNC)
88. Which regulatory concept in spectrum management aims to prevent interference by ensuring that the ratio of interference power to desired signal power at the receiver input remains below a specified threshold?
A. Spectrum Auction
B. Adjacent Channel Leakage Ratio (ACLR)
C. Co-existence Criteria
D. Maximum Permissible Exposure (MPE)
89. In fiber optic transmission, what physical phenomenon is directly responsible for the maximum usable repeater spacing distance being reduced?
A. Chromatic Dispersion.
B. Attenuation (Signal Loss).
C. Polarization Mode Dispersion (PMD).
D. Nonlinear effects like Self-Phase Modulation (SPM).
90. What is the defining feature of a Carrier Aggregation (CA) deployment in LTE/5G compared to traditional single-carrier operation?
A. CA combines multiple frequency carriers (component carriers) into a single logical channel to increase peak data rates.
B. CA mandates the use of TDD spectrum exclusively.
C. CA relies solely on the time domain for resource division.
D. CA is designed to maximize coverage area rather than throughput.
91. In the context of the OSI model, which layer is responsible for end-to-end communication control and segmentation/reassembly of data packets?
A. Session Layer (Layer 5)
B. Network Layer (Layer 3)
C. Transport Layer (Layer 4)
D. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
92. Which modulation technique is primarily characterized by changing the phase of the carrier signal based on the input data?
A. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)
B. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
C. Phase Shift Keying (PSK)
D. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
93. What term describes the maximum theoretical data rate that can be transmitted over a communication channel with a specific bandwidth, given in a theoretical context?
A. Nyquist Rate
B. Shannon-Hartley Theorem Limit
C. Baud Rate
D. Bit Rate
94. In cellular network technology, what is the primary function of the Handover (Handoff) procedure?
A. To increase the transmission power of the mobile device.
B. To manage the allocation of new radio channels to a mobile station.
C. To seamlessly transfer an active call from one cell to another without interruption.
D. To authenticate the mobile user upon initial network entry.
95. Which key component in a fiber optic communication system is responsible for converting the electrical signal into optical pulses?
A. Optical Amplifier
B. Photodetector
C. Laser Diode or LED
D. Multiplexer
96. What is the main advantage of using Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) over traditional single-carrier modulation schemes in high-speed wireless communication?
A. It requires lower peak-to-average power ratio (PAPR) hardware.
B. It is inherently more resistant to intersymbol interference (ISI) caused by multipath fading.
C. It reduces the overall bandwidth requirement significantly.
D. It allows for simpler synchronization in the receiver.
97. In IP networking, what is the primary role of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A. To translate domain names into IP addresses.
B. To dynamically assign IP addresses to devices on a local network.
C. To map a known IP address to its corresponding physical (MAC) address on the local segment.
D. To determine the best route for a packet across multiple networks.
98. Which concept in mobile communications addresses the reduction in signal strength due to blockage or absorption by obstacles between the transmitter and receiver?
A. Fading
B. Diffraction
C. Penetration Loss
D. Attenuation
99. What does the term ‘Latency’ primarily refer to in the context of real-time communication networks?
A. The total number of packets lost during transmission.
B. The time delay between the source sending a packet and the destination receiving it.
C. The rate at which data is successfully transmitted per second.
D. The maximum achievable data rate.
100. In wired Ethernet standards (e.g., IEEE 802.3), what is the purpose of the CSMA/CD access method?
A. To prioritize high-priority traffic over standard data frames.
B. To prevent collisions by ensuring only one station transmits at a time via token passing.
C. To detect and manage collisions that occur when multiple stations transmit simultaneously on a shared medium.
D. To implement time division multiplexing on the shared cable.
101. Which concept is crucial for efficient wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) in optical networks to prevent signals on adjacent channels from interfering?
A. Chromatic Dispersion Compensation (CDC)
B. Polarization Mode Dispersion (PMD)
C. Optical Signal-to-Noise Ratio (OSNR)
D. Channel Spacing and Filter Selectivity
102. What is the main difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms?
A. Symmetric encryption uses only one key for both encryption and decryption, while asymmetric uses a key pair.
B. Symmetric encryption is inherently faster and used for bulk data, while asymmetric is slower and used for key exchange.
C. Symmetric encryption provides non-repudiation, whereas asymmetric does not.
D. Asymmetric encryption is only used for digital signatures, not for data confidentiality.
103. In the context of modern 5G New Radio (NR), what mechanism allows for better spectral efficiency by enabling multiple users to transmit/receive simultaneously on the same frequency resource?
A. Time Division Duplexing (TDD)
B. Carrier Aggregation (CA)
C. Massive MIMO (Multiple-Input Multiple-Output)
D. Dynamic Spectrum Sharing (DSS)
104. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications running on different hosts?
A. Internet Layer
B. Application Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Network Access Layer
105. What is the primary reason for using Frequency Reuse in cellular network design?
A. To mitigate co-channel interference between adjacent cells.
B. To increase the total system capacity by reusing limited spectrum resources across geographical areas.
C. To ensure seamless handover performance.
D. To reduce the required transmission power for each cell site.
106. If a network administrator observes a high number of retransmissions and delayed acknowledgments (ACKs) but low outright packet loss, which congestion control issue is most likely occurring?
A. Buffer overflow leading to immediate drops.
B. Excessive queuing delay causing timeouts.
C. Route flapping causing topology instability.
D. High bit error rate (BER) causing physical layer corruption.
107. What differentiates a private IP address from a public IP address?
A. Private IPs are used exclusively for IPv6 networks.
B. Private IPs are not routable on the public Internet and are reserved for internal networks.
C. Public IPs are always dynamic, while private IPs are static.
D. Private IPs are assigned using DHCP, while public IPs require manual assignment.
108. In the context of digital multiplexing, what is the fundamental principle differentiating Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) from Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)?
A. TDM operates only in the time domain, while FDM operates only in the frequency domain.
B. TDM requires synchronization at the receiver, while FDM does not.
C. TDM is inherently asynchronous, while FDM is synchronous.
D. TDM is used for analog signals, FDM for digital signals.
109. Which standard primarily governs the operation and management of Passive Optical Networks (PONs) for Fiber-to-the-Home (FTTH) access?
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ITU-T G.984 (for GPON)
C. IETF RFC 791
D. 3GPP TS 38.300
110. When analyzing a communication link, what does a high Bit Error Rate (BER) typically indicate as the root cause?
A. Insufficient bandwidth for the required data rate.
B. Excessive noise or interference relative to the signal power.
C. Protocol overhead consuming too much capacity.
D. Inefficient error correction coding being used.
111. What is the defining characteristic of ‘Software-Defined Networking’ (SDN) architecture in modern data centers and service provider networks?
A. The use of specialized, proprietary hardware for all forwarding functions.
B. Decoupling the network control plane from the forwarding plane.
C. Complete elimination of the need for physical routing tables.
D. Mandatory use of optical fiber for all backbone connections.
112. Which concept allows a single physical link to carry multiple logical sessions, each treated independently based on specific criteria (like QoS or security)?
A. Bandwidth Allocation
B. Channel Bonding
C. Virtualization (e.g., VLANs, MPLS Tunnels)
D. Spread Spectrum Technology
113. In Voice over IP (VoIP) systems, which protocol is primarily responsible for setting up, modifying, and terminating multimedia sessions?
A. RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol)
B. RTCP (RTP Control Protocol)
C. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)
D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
114. What is the main function of a ‘Guard Band’ in FDM systems?
A. To ensure the main signal spectrum is protected from channel noise.
B. To provide a small gap between adjacent channel frequencies to prevent interference (crosstalk).
C. To reserve capacity for signaling and control traffic.
D. To dynamically adjust the carrier frequency based on traffic load.
115. Which digital coding technique converts analog signals into a digital bitstream by quantizing the signal amplitude at regular intervals?
A. Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM)
B. Pulse Width Modulation (PWM)
C. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
D. Frequency Modulation (FM)
116. In network security, the principle of ‘Least Privilege’ dictates that a user or process should only have the minimum necessary permissions to perform its intended function; what is its primary security benefit?
A. It increases overall system performance by limiting access.
B. It reduces the potential impact or damage caused by a security breach or insider error.
C. It ensures regulatory compliance across all international standards.
D. It simplifies network administration by eliminating complex access policies.
117. What fundamental limitation does the ‘2R’ process (Regeneration) in optical networking address compared to ‘3R’ (Reamplification, Reshaping, Retiming)?
A. 2R cannot handle dispersion effects effectively.
B. 2R only applies to short-haul links, not long-haul.
C. 2R only reshapes and reamplifies, leading to accumulated timing jitter.
D. 2R involves optical-to-electrical conversion followed by electrical-to-optical conversion, which is slow.
118. In a layered protocol stack, why is the concept of encapsulation necessary?
A. To encrypt the data at the lowest physical layer.
B. To allow each layer to add its own header/trailer containing control information relevant to that layer’s function.
C. To ensure that data can be transmitted wirelessly rather than wired.
D. To reduce the overall size of the application data payload.
119. What technique allows multiple independent communication sessions to share a single physical medium based on their destination addresses at Layer 2, commonly used in local area networks?
A. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
B. Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs)
C. Frequency Division Duplexing (FDD)
D. Statistical Multiplexing
120. What is the primary benefit gained by deploying millimeter wave (mmWave) frequencies (e.g., 24 GHz and above) in 5G cellular systems?
A. Significantly greater propagation distance and penetration capabilities.
B. Vastly increased available contiguous spectrum, enabling very high throughput.
C. Improved robustness against rain fade and atmospheric absorption.
D. Lower power consumption requirements for mobile devices.
121. In the context of modern telecommunications standards, what is the primary function of the concept of ‘spectral efficiency’ when evaluating a wireless communication system?
A. It measures the total power consumption of the transmitter and receiver hardware.
B. It quantifies the data rate achievable per unit of bandwidth, typically measured in bits per second per Hertz (bps/Hz).
C. It defines the maximum range over which a signal can be reliably transmitted.
D. It determines the level of encryption required for secure data transmission.
122. Which of the following modulation schemes offers the highest spectral efficiency in ideal, noise-free conditions, assuming a constant symbol rate?
A. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
B. Binary Phase Shift Keying (BPSK)
C. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) with a high constellation size, such as 256-QAM.
D. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)
123. What is the fundamental difference in how FDD (Frequency Division Duplexing) and TDD (Time Division Duplexing) manage uplink and downlink traffic in cellular networks?
A. FDD uses different time slots for uplink and downlink, while TDD uses different frequency bands.
B. FDD allocates separate, dedicated frequency bands for simultaneous uplink and downlink transmission, whereas TDD uses the same frequency band but alternates transmission in time slots.
C. FDD is only used in satellite communications, while TDD is used in terrestrial mobile networks.
D. FDD requires synchronization between base stations, which TDD does not.
124. In the context of optical fiber communication, why is dispersion management crucial, particularly for high-speed, long-haul links?
A. Dispersion reduces the signal’s optical power, leading to attenuation issues.
B. Dispersion causes different spectral components of a pulse to arrive at different times, leading to pulse spreading and inter-symbol interference (ISI).
C. Dispersion is primarily caused by non-linear effects like stimulated Raman scattering.
D. Dispersion limits the maximum achievable frequency of the light source.
125. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the logical addressing (e.g., IP addresses) and routing decisions in a packet-switched network?
A. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
B. Network Layer (Layer 3)
C. Transport Layer (Layer 4)
D. Application Layer (Layer 7)
126. What is the primary advantage of using MIMO (Multiple-Input Multiple-Output) technology in modern 4G and 5G wireless systems?
A. It completely eliminates the need for channel coding and error correction.
B. It increases the system’s coverage area by boosting the transmission power significantly.
C. It improves both spectral efficiency (data throughput) and link reliability by exploiting spatial diversity and multiplexing.
D. It simplifies the design of the user equipment (UE) by using only one receiver antenna.
127. In the evolution of mobile standards, what major architectural shift did 5G NR (New Radio) introduce compared to 4G LTE regarding the core network?
A. complete shift back to circuit-switched voice services.
B. The adoption of a fully packet-switched, cloud-native, service-based architecture (SBA) for the 5G Core (5GC).
C. The mandatory use of millimeter-wave frequencies exclusively.
D. The decoupling of the control plane and user plane functions at the RAN level only.
128. When analyzing noise in communication systems, what does the figure of merit $E_b/N_0$ represent, and what does a higher value generally indicate?
A. It represents the ratio of energy transmitted to noise spectral density; a higher value indicates better quality.
B. It represents the ratio of energy per bit to the noise power spectral density ($N_0$); a higher value indicates better performance.
C. It is the ratio of received signal power to interference power, indicating resistance to jamming.
D. It measures the efficiency of the power amplifier relative to the noise floor.
129. Which technique is primarily used in OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing) systems to combat frequency-selective fading introduced by multipath propagation?
A. Increasing the transmission power by utilizing high-gain antennas.
B. Employing a Cyclic Prefix (CP) that is longer than the maximum channel delay spread.
C. Using spread spectrum techniques like CDMA.
D. Implementing adaptive beamforming at the receiver.
130. What is the defining characteristic that distinguishes a ‘software-defined networking’ (SDN) approach from traditional networking architectures?
A. SDN relies entirely on proprietary hardware implementations for forwarding.
B. SDN decouples the control plane (decision making) from the data plane (packet forwarding).
C. SDN mandates the use of only optical transmission media.
D. SDN eliminates the need for network administrators to configure devices directly.
131. In fixed satellite communication systems, what is the primary purpose of using Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites?
A. To provide low latency communication links to the polar regions.
B. To offer constant, fixed coverage over a large geographic area due to their orbital period matching Earth’s rotation.
C. To enable direct terrestrial line-of-sight communication.
D. To minimize atmospheric absorption effects across all frequency bands.
132. What critical function does the Handover (or Handoff) procedure perform in a cellular network when a mobile device moves from one cell coverage area to another?
A. It initiates a complete reset of the user equipment’s software.
B. It seamlessly transfers the active communication session from the source cell to the target cell without interruption.
C. It reduces the data rate to conserve spectrum resources in the new cell.
D. It changes the modulation scheme to a lower-order format.
133. Which standard defines the technical specifications for the Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) air interface?
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ETSI TS 121 series
C. ITU-T G.992.1
D. 3GPP TS 23.401
134. If a communication channel exhibits Rayleigh fading, how would this typically manifest regarding the received signal power level over short time intervals?
A. The received power remains almost constant, with minor fluctuations.
B. The received power experiences rapid and deep fluctuations, often modeled by a Rayleigh distribution.
C. The power level is permanently attenuated by a fixed amount due to reflections.
D. The signal power level shows a consistent, gradual decay over long periods.
135. What is the primary constraint that limits the achievable data rate in a communication channel, according to the Shannon-Hartley theorem?
A. The complexity of the modulation scheme used.
B. The bandwidth of the channel and the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR).
C. The physical height of the transmitting antenna.
D. The latency requirement for real-time applications.
136. In IP networking, what is the role of the Time To Live (TTL) field in an IPv4 header?
A. It specifies the maximum delay allowed for the packet before it must be dropped.
B. It determines the Quality of Service (QoS) priority of the packet.
C. It prevents packets from circulating indefinitely in routing loops by decrementing the value at each hop.
D. It indicates the maximum number of TCP segments allowed in the payload.
137. What major technical challenge does the deployment of high-frequency millimeter-wave (mmWave) spectrum (e.g., above 24 GHz) in 5G present compared to sub-6 GHz bands?
A. Lower spectral efficiency due to excessive path loss.
B. Significantly shorter range and higher susceptibility to blockage (e.g., by foliage or walls).
C. Inability to support MIMO transmission techniques.
D. Difficulty in achieving synchronization between base stations.
138. Which concept, central to modern core networks (4G/5G), involves breaking down network functions into standardized, replaceable modules that can run on commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) hardware?
A. Hardwired Function Implementation (HFI)
B. Software Defined Networking (SDN)
C. Network Function Virtualization (NFV)
D. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
139. In a digital communication link, what is the role of Forward Error Correction (FEC) coding?
A. To compress the data stream before modulation to save bandwidth.
B. To add controlled redundancy to the data stream to allow the receiver to detect and correct errors introduced by the channel.
C. To adjust the transmission power based on instantaneous channel conditions.
D. To manage the synchronization timing between the transmitter and receiver clocks.
140. What is the primary difference between CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) and CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) protocols?
A. CSMA/CD is used in wired Ethernet, while CSMA/CA is used exclusively in wireless networks.
B. CSMA/CD requires stations to detect collisions during transmission, while CSMA/CA attempts to avoid collisions using mechanisms like reservation or backoff before transmission.
C. CSMA/CD transmits at full power, whereas CSMA/CA uses adaptive power control.
D. CSMA/CD prioritizes voice traffic, while CSMA/CA prioritizes data traffic.
141. If a network administrator needs to ensure that VoIP traffic receives precedence and guaranteed bandwidth over standard web browsing traffic, which QoS mechanism must be primarily configured?
A. Congestion Control (TCP Windowing)
B. Traffic Shaping and Policing
C. Classification and Marking (e.g., DSCP or 802.1p)
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Caching
142. In the context of Fiber-to-the-Home (FTTH) architectures, what distinguishes an Active Optical Network (AON) from a Passive Optical Network (PON)?
A. AON uses Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) extensively, while PON relies solely on Time Division Multiplexing (TDM).
B. AON uses electrically powered active components (like switches/routers) in the distribution network, whereas PON uses only unpowered optical splitters.
C. PON supports higher ultimate bandwidth capacity than AON.
D. AON requires single-mode fiber exclusively, while PON requires multi-mode fiber.
143. What is the fundamental security threat addressed by implementing mutual authentication between a mobile device and the network access point in a cellular system?
A. Denial of Service (DoS) attacks against the core network infrastructure.
B. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attacks where an attacker impersonates the legitimate network.
C. Eavesdropping on unencrypted user data packets.
D. Physical tampering with the base station hardware.
144. Which phenomenon causes signal degradation in wireless communication due to reflections, scattering, and diffraction, resulting in multiple signal paths arriving at the receiver at different times?
A. Attenuation
B. Doppler Effect
C. Multipath Propagation
D. Absorption
145. What distinguishes the role of the Control Plane from the Data Plane in modern network architectures like 5G?
A. The Control Plane handles all user data transmission, while the Data Plane handles signaling messages.
B. The Control Plane manages topology, signaling, and resource allocation decisions, while the Data Plane forwards user traffic based on these decisions.
C. The Control Plane operates exclusively at Layer 1, and the Data Plane operates at Layer 7.
D. The Control Plane is always hardware-based, and the Data Plane is always software-based.
146. Why are higher frequency bands (e.g., 28 GHz in 5G) utilized despite their poor propagation characteristics?
A. To lower the overall cost of base station deployment.
B. To leverage the significantly wider available contiguous bandwidths for extremely high data rates.
C. To enable easier penetration through dense urban structures.
D. To avoid interference from existing 4G LTE deployments.
147. In the context of wired optical networks, what does the acronym DWDM stand for, and what is its function?
A. Digital Wave Distribution Modulation; it controls signal power levels.
B. Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing; it transmits multiple data streams simultaneously over a single fiber using different optical carrier wavelengths.
C. Dynamic Wideband Data Mapping; it optimizes packet addressing schemes.
D. Distributed Wireless Data Metering; it manages energy consumption in network devices.
148. What is the primary goal of implementing Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) between two network switches?
A. To encrypt all traffic passing between the switches.
B. To dynamically bundle multiple physical links into a single logical link for increased bandwidth and redundancy.
C. To assign Quality of Service (QoS) priorities to aggregated links.
D. To automatically reduce the transmission power of the connecting links.
149. How does a mobile device determine the best serving cell in a 4G/5G network environment when multiple cells are in range?
A. By choosing the cell that uses the lowest available channel frequency.
B. By constantly measuring the Reference Signal Received Power (RSRP) and Reference Signal Received Quality (RSRQ) and selecting the cell that provides the best measurement values according to predefined thresholds.
C. By prioritizing the cell controlled by the nearest physical tower.
D. By randomly selecting any cell that broadcasts the current tracking area code.
150. Which characteristic makes OFDM particularly robust against frequency-selective fading encountered in wideband wireless channels?
A. It uses spread spectrum techniques.
B. It spreads the high data rate over many narrow, orthogonal subcarriers, turning frequency-selective fading into flat fading on each subcarrier.
C. It relies on continuous wave transmission.
D. It employs only BPSK modulation across all subcarriers.